Why does Jesus in the Lord's prayer address the Lord as "Father"?

A

Ava Neliel

New member
..and then refer to the Father's children throughout as "Us" and "We," instead of separating himself from the rest of the children of God, as the Trinity would seem to demand?
 
It was all written by man for man without any divine intervention , man is the universes top story teller , just like the witch doctors of ancient civilizations . If it was written by a god then there would be no questions .
 
Jesus is called "the shepherd of men", and he speaks for both himself and humanity in that prayer.

That sounds preachy, sorry. But that's the story.
 
God is able to be more than we are. Think of it as Him being in different times at the same time . In the preseent and future He is God, At one time He was the son, He is also the spirit. In sci-fi movies , they call it different dimensions. The trinity teachers confuse the point. All we need to know is that Jesus did not say to worship Jesus/ He said to pray to our Father
 
Try as much as you want and you can never wrap your finite mind around what "infinite" really means!

Paul gives us a hint with Phil 2:6...........- that Jesus emptied Himself of His deity to become human flesh. Jesus was a MAN that still reached up to God the Father for support in this mortal coil.
 
there are definitely different interpretations. you could say that jesus is being humble...he came to earth and became a human, so he became a human fully and doesn't see himself as "above" other humans. or you could say that god did technically create him, even if he used part of himself.
 
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