What is the reason for someone to rant in gibberish aka speaking in tongues?

  • Thread starter Thread starter mr_dees_65
  • Start date Start date
M

mr_dees_65

Guest
Does ecstatic speech in a language that a person never learned prove that he has holy spirit?
Can the ability to “speak in tongues” come from a source other than the true God?

1 John 4:1: “Beloved ones, do not believe every inspired expression [“every spirit,” KJ, RS], but test the inspired expressions to see whether they originate with God.” (See also Matthew 7:21-23; 2Â*Corinthians 11:14,Â*15.)
Among those ‘speaking in tongues’ today are Pentecostals and Baptists, also Roman Catholics, Episcopalians, Methodists, Lutherans, and Presbyterians. Jesus said that the holy spirit would ‘guide his disciples into all the truth.’ (John 16:13) Do the members of each of these religions believe that the others who also “speak in tongues” have been guided into “all the truth”? How could that be, since they are not all in agreement? What spirit is making it possible for them to “speak in tongues”?

A joint statement by the Fountain Trust and the Church of England Evangelical Council admitted: “We are also aware that a similar phenomenon can occur under occult/demonic influence.” (Gospel and Spirit, April 1977, published by the Fountain Trust and the Church of England Evangelical Council, p.Â*12) The book Religious Movements in Contemporary America (edited by Irving I.Â*Zaretsky and Mark P.Â*Leone, quoting L. P. Gerlach) reports that in Haiti ‘speaking in tongues’ is characteristic of both Pentecostal and Voodoo religions.—(Princeton,Â*N.J.; 1974), p.Â*693; see also 2Â*Thessalonians 2:9,Â*10.

Is the ‘speaking in tongues’ that is done today the same as that done by first-century Christians?
In the first century, the miraculous gifts of the spirit, including the ability to “speak in tongues,” verified that God’s favor had shifted from the Jewish system of worship to the newly established Christian congregation. (Heb. 2:2-4) Since that objective was accomplished in the first century, is it necessary to prove the same thing again and again in our day?
In the first century, the ability to “speak in tongues” gave impetus to the international work of witnessing that Jesus had commissioned his followers to do. (Acts 1:8; 2:1-11; Matt. 28:19) Is that how those who “speak in tongues” use that ability today?
In the first century, when Christians ‘spoke in tongues,’ what they said had meaning to people who knew those languages. (Acts 2:4,Â*8) Today, is it not true that ‘speaking in tongues’ usually involves an ecstatic outburst of unintelligible sounds?
In the first century, the Bible shows, congregations were to limit the ‘speaking in tongues’ to two or three persons who might do that at any given meeting; they were to do it “each in turn,” and if there was no interpreter present they were to keep silent. (1Â*Cor. 14:27,Â*28, RS) Is that what is being done today?

Might the holy spirit be directing charismatics into practices that reach beyond what is found in the Scriptures?

2 Tim. 3:16,Â*17: “All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.” (If someone claims to have an inspired message that conflicts with revelations made by God’s spirit through Jesus and his apostles, could it possibly be from the same source?)
Gal. 1:8: “Even if we or an angel out of heaven were to declare to you as good news something beyond [“at variance with,” NE] what we declared to you as good news, let him be accursed.”
Does the way of life of members of organizations that look with favor on ‘speaking in tongues’ give evidence that they have God’s spirit?
As a group do they outstandingly manifest such fruits of the spirit as mildness and self-control? Are these qualities readily evident to persons who attend their meetings for worship?—Gal. 5:22,Â*23.
Are they truly “no part of the world”? Because of this do they give full devotion to the Kingdom of God or are they involved in the world’s political affairs? Have they remained clean of bloodguilt during wartime? As a group do they have a fine reputation because of avoiding the world’s immoral conduct?—John 17:16; Isa. 2:4; 1Â*Thess. 4:3-8.
 
What I would like to see happen, is if two fundies who had never met were put in a room together and they were asked to put what they were saying on paper.
After said rant, they had to explain what the other was saying in front of a translator!!!
Sound like a good experiment
 
Well , being Jehovah's witness I never beleived in it but one time i was in sidtress and i yelled out adonai adonai amore amore teamo teamo which I discovered to my suprise was The sovereign lord ilove you i love you in three different languages I knew amore was french and adonai is apparently an old english word but honestly spanish? Teamo? I did not know why or how but i spoke it to myself and noone else was around and well I had to find out what i said and it was just for me but I know that if god wanted me to speak other languages he could cause me to but it seems this was just for me and well we Jw's do speak all languages already throughout the entire world so I know we don't need such miraculous languages today .
 
This is a construction of the modern age. What some sects call 'speaking in tongues' is just them being moronic.

According to the scriptures, speaking in tongues... is only one of two things:

1. Someone speaks their native language, and everyone assembled hears him in their own native language... translated by the Holy Spirit.

or

2. Someone speaks in a language they don't know... and there is a native speaker of the congregation who identifies the language and translates for everyone else.

I've witnessed the second version, the speaker was someone I'd known my whole life... and the translator was a visitor to the congregation.

I've heard stories about the first type, but never experienced it.
 
Back
Top