What distinguishes Aquinas’ argument “from change” from his argument “from causality”?

What distinguishes Aquinas’ argument “from change” from his argument “from causality”?

Focus on the difference mainly. Offer an objection to one (or to both) arguments.

*Note: This is not homework! It's simply a test preparation question. In other words, it doesn't matter where I get the information, just so long as it's the right information. Therefore, please spare me the "do your own homework" response.
 
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