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...implications of Godel's Theorem. Logical? Yes, Godel's Theorem applies to formal systems. But many have posited the universe itself as a formal system (or finite automaton.) So what do you think?
Related question: Did the theological implications of Godel's Theorem have anything to do with Kurt Godel's conversion to Biblical Christianity late in life? (I had only one conversation with him about this topic but by that time he was in his final days and I had difficulty following some of his answer.)
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People use the term "convert" in various ways. But I know from personal conversation with Kurt Godel that HE considered himself to have undergone a profound change of religious orientation. (Many would call it a born-again experience. I'm not saying that that was the term he would use. But I use it as an example of a term that captures some of what he communicated about his change of world view.)
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The "sola scriptura" argument posed below fails in assuming that Protestants do not consider the doctrine part of the Bible itself. (Whether they are correct or not doesn't matter, although I consider their hermeneutics consistent. Plus, you are pretending that the issue is akin to the "substitution" you make and that such a simplistic dismissal makes sense. Sorry, no. However, if you developed it independently, I commend your creativity. I've had grad students who seemed to never quite grasp the meaning and implications of the Incompleteness Theorem and could never get as far with it as you have articulated here. Good job.)
A complete refutation of your hypothesis is beyond the limits of the 800 characters allowed for this reply. But I simply want to point out that your concept has been posited by others and quite a number of theological journal articles have dealt with such misunderstandings of the Protestant Reformation.
Related question: Did the theological implications of Godel's Theorem have anything to do with Kurt Godel's conversion to Biblical Christianity late in life? (I had only one conversation with him about this topic but by that time he was in his final days and I had difficulty following some of his answer.)
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People use the term "convert" in various ways. But I know from personal conversation with Kurt Godel that HE considered himself to have undergone a profound change of religious orientation. (Many would call it a born-again experience. I'm not saying that that was the term he would use. But I use it as an example of a term that captures some of what he communicated about his change of world view.)
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The "sola scriptura" argument posed below fails in assuming that Protestants do not consider the doctrine part of the Bible itself. (Whether they are correct or not doesn't matter, although I consider their hermeneutics consistent. Plus, you are pretending that the issue is akin to the "substitution" you make and that such a simplistic dismissal makes sense. Sorry, no. However, if you developed it independently, I commend your creativity. I've had grad students who seemed to never quite grasp the meaning and implications of the Incompleteness Theorem and could never get as far with it as you have articulated here. Good job.)
A complete refutation of your hypothesis is beyond the limits of the 800 characters allowed for this reply. But I simply want to point out that your concept has been posited by others and quite a number of theological journal articles have dealt with such misunderstandings of the Protestant Reformation.