Not really. It comes down to how we define evil. However, I've decided to view evil as "that which is bad" and bad is subjective, on the other hand that which is bad subjectively will be viewed as a detriment to that who sees it as bad. However as long as it doesn't cause harm to non-consenting parties than it can't be a detriment to the well being of others. Can music in and of itself cause harm? Well it comes down what we accept as causing harm. Can music cause you fiscal harm without consent? No, music can not take money out of your wallet without you wanting to spend money on it. Can music cause physical damage to you without you agreeing to the risk of that physical damage? No, most certainly not. Any loss of hearing is due to the fact that you decided to put yourself in a situation where the music was loud enough to cause it. You decided those risks were agreeable on your own terms and the music didn't force you into that position. How about mental harm against your will? No, music can't cause mental harm without your consent to the risk first. Upon choosing to listen to music you agree to what it may or may not do to you mentally, and music can not force you to listen to it. Therefore music can not be a detriment to a non-consenting party. A person can be a detriment by forcing another to hear his or her music, but the music itself can not force a person to hear it, and therefore isn't bad objectively using a definition which pivots on subjectivity. However if we choose to define evil some other way it might be possible to rationalize music as being evil.