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...the whole public? Someone told me,
"in law books the term "man" is used as neutral and is generalized as the whole public."
Is that true?
If that's true..................
how come we had to ratify the 19th amendment to give women the right to vote?
prior to the 19th amendment, the constitution already said "all men are created equal."
If that truly meant "all persons are created equal," then women would already have the right to vote!
"in law books the term "man" is used as neutral and is generalized as the whole public."
Is that true?
If that's true..................
how come we had to ratify the 19th amendment to give women the right to vote?
prior to the 19th amendment, the constitution already said "all men are created equal."
If that truly meant "all persons are created equal," then women would already have the right to vote!