If a man deliberately gets a women drunk to have sex with her?

A

Aliesha

New member
does that mean he's lacking in the art of seduction? Why does he need alcohol to get her in the mood? Can't he use his natural skills to get her in the mood?
 
It means that he's a rapist. Nobody can give consent to sex if they're not mentally competent. In your example, the man is drugging the woman in order to make her less resistant, or unable to resist, his advances.

Now, let's change this a bit. If a man deliberately gets another man drunk in order to have sex with him? If a man drugs another person, male or female, in order to have sex with him/her? If a woman gets someone else drunk in order to have sex with him/her?

How does changing the sex of the person who wants sex and the object of his/her desire affect your opinion of the act?
 
He is exhibiting intent to commit assault. End of story.



The question is about the man's actions, not any decisions the woman/women may make. Focus, people.
 
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