Imagine this scenario: you're a man who enjoyed a fantasic sexual relationship, but awhile after getting married, your wife's libido declines and is only interested in sex twice a month and won't budge for more (she's in her early 40s, considered by many to be a woman's "prime"), although you still crave it and want it 3 times a week.
Is that enough for a claim of sexual deprivation? If not, how seldom IS enough to warrant putting your foot down for more sex or else divorce?
Is that enough for a claim of sexual deprivation? If not, how seldom IS enough to warrant putting your foot down for more sex or else divorce?