Arizona? I read that the seller ends up paying for the agent that represents the buyer. Doesn't this mean that it still costs the buyer even if it is indirectly? What I mean is wouldn't the seller be less likely to negotiate a lower price if they knew they had a larger commission to pay or would the commission stay fixed and just be split between the seller's agent and the buyer's agent?
I was reading that here:
http://homebuying.about.com/od/realestateagents/f/4909_PaysBuyerAgts.htm
I was reading that here:
http://homebuying.about.com/od/realestateagents/f/4909_PaysBuyerAgts.htm