How does plural Psalms 22:1 = Matthew 27:46's "forsaken" differ from 2Timothy...

A

Allegory

New member
...2:15's singular "approved"? How does blame game shame of plural "Christians" at Antioch1
differ from converted Peter's note a "Christian" has no shame?

How does Mt 25:31-33's left/right division has no peace,
differ from Gen 1:6-8's under/above has peace "above"?

Could it have something to do with Genesis 2:16 -vs- 17's
2:16 = every tree, freely given... of God (1Cor 2:12)... Above
2:17 = not every tree, surely die... not of God ... Under-Taker
If when "mingled", then it becomes Grace + Law = Life + Death?
Not to mention if believing & obeying 2:17 it then dis-obeys 2:16.

Is this why Christ would "not" receive a "mingled" drink in Mt 27:34; Why
Christ abolished the law of (plural & contrary) commandments: Eph 2:15;
Why Christ sitteth "above", not sat "down" in a Mount of Olives grave yard?
 
Consider the distinction between Psalms 25:3 and Leviticus 4:3. Both refer to the "ism" of soul BUT the crucial difference is that Leviticus is talking about a heterological identification (referencing Numbers 5:13) and Psalms is taking a purely ego-based systemic catalog of the world as a self-referential closed entity.

Furthermore, Gensis 3:3 talks about the epistemological differences between this "ism" and the stipulations regarding Job 18:5.

Hope this helps.
 
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