A Alex New member May 21, 2009 #1 Suppose f(x) is a function such that lim as x goes to 2 of f(x) divided by Sin (pie x) Is it necessarily true that the limit equals 0?
Suppose f(x) is a function such that lim as x goes to 2 of f(x) divided by Sin (pie x) Is it necessarily true that the limit equals 0?
