really confused? in the socratic dialogue Meno, Socrates states that in order to have knowledge of something, it must be taught (since knowledge is a product of teaching in one form or another) and to be taught means there is a teacher. He then says there are no teachers of virtue so it must not be knowledge. He says we come to acquire our notion of virtue through true opinion which is not knowledge but correct nonetheless. But to have a true opinion of something means it must correspond with something another person must have knowledge of or who is to say it is a TRUE opinion. So if we have a true opinion of virtue, it must correspond with another person's knowledge of virtue. No one has knowledge of virtue as it cannot be taught since there are no teachers. So how do we know virtue?? He does say that we get our true opinion from the gods, but must it not still correspond with knowledge in order to be true? the gods cannot be teachers of virtue or virtue would still be considered knowledge.... I just need some clarification. Thanks
I know Socrates never wrote anything and Plato simply puts words in his mouth and am aware of kinds of knowledge that doesnt require a teacher like sensory and a priori knowledge. But what i'm mainly concerned with is Socrates' logic. I never thought Socrates to be self-contradicting. I just want to know if I am missing some crucial point in his logic or if he really does contradict himself.
Just substitue Socrates with Plato in the above detail
I know Socrates never wrote anything and Plato simply puts words in his mouth and am aware of kinds of knowledge that doesnt require a teacher like sensory and a priori knowledge. But what i'm mainly concerned with is Socrates' logic. I never thought Socrates to be self-contradicting. I just want to know if I am missing some crucial point in his logic or if he really does contradict himself.
Just substitue Socrates with Plato in the above detail