J Jack271 New member May 4, 2010 #1 Let F be an infinite field and f(x), g(x) E F[x]. If f(a) = g(a) for infinitely many a E F, prove that f(x) = g(x)
Let F be an infinite field and f(x), g(x) E F[x]. If f(a) = g(a) for infinitely many a E F, prove that f(x) = g(x)
