Abstinence is the ONLY 100% effective way to prevent pregnancy and S.T.D's, but because so many (in fact the same amount of teens who would have had sex anyway) fail remaining abstinent, shouldn't that be considered a failure rate? Sorry, I'm having a hard time communicating this effectively, but isn't this like saying 60% of the time it works with 100% accuracy? So, isn't that just saying it works 60% of the time?
With abstinence only education, I commonly hear?
- Thread starter Sophie
- Start date