why is the lexicon different for NAS and KJV?

C

Cassie

New member
I wanted to show someone a verse in its original greek format in the new testament (i know this sounds nuts, but there is logic behind it, haha. it's not for any stupid debate) , but I realized that the lexicons for KJV and NAS had different greek words here and there. If this is in its original greek format, why is it different? Obviously they made it into easier-to-understand English in the NAS, but it should still use the same original greek words. It's confusing the mess out of me. And I don't want to hear anything about Christianity being fake, stupid, and whatever else you believe. I'm not interested in random religion debates and opinions.
 
Keep in mind the original KJV was translated in 1611. They used the most reliable manuscripts at that time. If the 350+ years since then, likely new manuscripts or more accurate/complete ones have probably surfaced. That would be my best guess as to why they don't match.
 
Because the KJV was translated from the Latin Vulgate, not primarily from Greek sources. And since 1611 more Greek texts have been found, and they aren't all identical.
 
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