Why do Mercury (I) and (II) both have the same ionic charge?

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Warp

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I thought that the ionic charge was given by the roman numerals enclosed in parenthesis, so Mercury(II) will have an ionic charge of 2 and Mercurcy(I) should have an ionic charge of 1, but it doesn't, it also has an ionic charge of 2.

Also, why does Mercury(I) have a subscript of 2 in its formula, while Mercury(II) doesn't have a subscript, implying that it has 1 atom. This looks backwards.
 
Take the two compounds

HgCl2 is Hg+2 or Hg(II)

Hg2Cl2 is Hg+1 or Hg(I)

in the second one it is Hg2 that is +2, so each Hg is +1
 
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