Why did Sandra Day O'Connor reverse her own precedent?

Lois Griffin

New member
In Bowers v. Hardwick (1986),
She casted the deciding vote,
and she ruled that sodomy is NOT protected by the constitution.


In Lawrence v. Texas (2003),
She ruled that sodomy IS protected by the constitution.


Well in 2003, the majority concluded that sodomy is protected by "The right to privacy."
O'Connor didn't agree........but she CONCURRED.
She concluded that sodomy is protected by the "Equal Protection" clause.........


Nonetheless, she agreed that a ban on sodomy is unconstitutional.



So why didn't she concur back in 1986?


It makes no sense for the same judge to rule differently on the SAME issues.
 
Back
Top