Why, according to Aristotle, does it show "want of education" to demand

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Okusha

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demonstration for all things? Why, according to Aristotle, does it show " want of education" (i.e., ignorance) to demand demonstration for all things? Carefully explain Aristotle's "negative demonstration" of the rational indubitably of the principle of contradiction.


ok. this was a small essay question for logic class. and i have no clue.! help me!
 
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