P
Pragmaticite
Guest
For example in Leviticus chapters 18, 19 and 20, much of that scripture requires the congregation to stone sinners to death.
In Exodus 20:24-26, God specifies that all altars for sacrifice and worship must be made of earth, apparently something like adobe or unhewn stone. God explains that, if you raise a chisel to God's altar, even to craft it, the thing is polluted. And one mustn't ever walk up any steps to an altar – apparently because someone might see up your breechcloth.
Where in the Bible has God's word led have modern beleivers to migrate away from these scriptures and to embrace common law?
I appreciate the exchange of ideas, but I am looking for a chapter and verse citation where God specifically directs His children to shift from Leviticus' law to the law of man. God; not a human like Thomas of Aquinas or Peter.
If the Old Testament has been superseded by the New, why is the Old not stricken as apocryphal?
In Exodus 20:24-26, God specifies that all altars for sacrifice and worship must be made of earth, apparently something like adobe or unhewn stone. God explains that, if you raise a chisel to God's altar, even to craft it, the thing is polluted. And one mustn't ever walk up any steps to an altar – apparently because someone might see up your breechcloth.
Where in the Bible has God's word led have modern beleivers to migrate away from these scriptures and to embrace common law?
I appreciate the exchange of ideas, but I am looking for a chapter and verse citation where God specifically directs His children to shift from Leviticus' law to the law of man. God; not a human like Thomas of Aquinas or Peter.
If the Old Testament has been superseded by the New, why is the Old not stricken as apocryphal?