What Kind Of Double-Talk Is This? "Jesus fulfilled the law"?

CindyComesBack

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Christians say that Christianity did not get rid of the Law.

They point out the verses in the New Testament where Jesus says something along the lines of "not one jot nor tiddle of the law shall ever pass away".

Then they turn around and say Jesus fulfilled the Law, so the law is no longer applicable.

Isn't that just another way of saying that they've gotten rid of the Law, tossed it out?

Yes, I think it is. So what's with the double-talk there?

Explain please, Christians.
 
It is explained quite clearly by the letters penned by the Apostle Paul. His letter to the Roman Congregation is outstanding. You may want to read it yourself.

JEHOVAH gave the nation of Israel the Law, with its many features. Regarding them, the apostle Paul wrote: “They were legal requirements pertaining to the flesh and were imposed until the appointed time to set things straight.” (Hebrews 9:10) When the Law led a remnant of Israelites to accept Jesus as the Messiah, or Christ, it had fulfilled its purpose. Thus, Paul declared: “Christ is the end of the Law.”—Romans 10:4; Galatians 3:19-25; 4:4,Â*5.

Does this mean that the Law is not binding upon us today? Actually, the vast majority of humankind never were under the Law, as the psalmist explained: “[Jehovah] is telling his word to Jacob, his regulations and his judicial decisions to Israel. He has not done that way to any other nation; and as for his judicial decisions, they have not known them.” (Psalm 147:19, 20)

When God established the new covenant on the basis of Jesus’ sacrifice, even the nation of Israel was no longer under obligation to obey the Law. (Galatians 3:13; Ephesians 2:15; Colossians 2:13, 14, 16)
 
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