Those who can read biblical Greek: why can't you pronounce it correctly?

For example, John 1:1c:
??? ???? ?? ? ?????

I hear most pronounce ???? with a glottal stop between the vowels, which it should not have. Many stress the first syllable, when clearly the second takes the stress.

I just heard someone very knowledgeable in Koine Greek pronounce ????? with the stress on the second syllable. This is strange because 1) it clearly takes the stress on the first syllable, 2) English generally stresses the first syllable of words, so an English speaker should be inclined to stress the first syllable of ????? anyway.
 
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