Portuguese slavery?

[natasha m]

Why is it that between the years 1519-1806 that Britain and Portugal were exporting roughly the same ammount of slaves c. 3,673 million Portugal, c.3,112 million Britain (although, Britain's exports became more intense between 1700-1800) and after these dates Portugal between 1800-50 exported almost 1,5 million more; that Portugal did not become as economically powerful with regards to the Industrial Revolution? Was it because Britain had developed more as a State, in terms of the Decleration of Rights in 1689 that made it easier to re-invest in British economy through slavery. Portugal however, did not have the same political structure as Britain so held it back in terms of economic growth through slavery, if that makes any sense. However, there is some debate that slavery did not drive forward the Industrial Revolution in Britain, if we look at the figures of slave exports for both countries, but I feel that Portuguese slavery profits went to a state not as 'developed' as Britain (?

 

[Slave O]

in a nut shell the curse of the Spanish and Portuguese colonies is that these countries simply wished to exploit their possessions, while Britain wished to provided good governance and a better state for all.(all being white planation owners) Britain has democratic system with limited franchise while the Hispanic system mearly enriched single people through bribery and exploitation
Due to a meritocracy in Britain as opposed to an aristocracy , Britain welcomed changed while the Hispanic world suppressed ied it, so when the industrial revolution came the British saw it as a way to increase profits and the Hispanic world saw it a change that threatened the establish order