Need help explaining MRI result

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low222

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This is an MRI of a 25 year old female.... can someone help me understand what its saying..

History: Lurabago

Findings: Mild degenerative as well as degenerative disk changes are present in the lurabar spine.

At the L5-S1 level, mild diffuse posterior bulging is present. It is slightly greater on the left than the right, as well as an area of high signal within the left side of this disk consistent with a diffusely posterior bulging disk with a focal area of annular tear. This causes only mild spinal and mild bilateral neural foraminal stenoses.

At the L4-5 level, mild posterior bulging is present and is causing only mild spinal stenoses.

No intrinsic pathology is noted of the lower portion of the spinal cord image.

Impression:
No severe spinal nor neuroforaminal stenosis is evident of the lurabar spine with stable bulging discs persisting at the L4-L5 and the L5-S1 levels.

Persistence of findings consistent with a small annular tear at the L5-S1






So can someone break this down for me ? and with some experience not just some copy and paste terms.... thank you
 
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