For a Modern History exam we were asked the following multiple choice question:
Which term best defines a mostly "technologically-driven population shift from the country-side to factory towns".
We had to choose from the following terms: capitalism, feudalism, industrialisation and urbanisation.
At first glance one is compelled to pick 'Industrialisation' as the correct answer, as was marked correct for this exam. However, I question this ruling because of the use of the term "population shift".
Would anyone be able to please provide a clear definition of both Industrialisation and urbanisation and provide a convincing case on either option as the answer.
I personally believe that urbanisation (the population shift) being the result of the advances in technology (industrialisation) would mean that this definition is best suited to the term urbanisation, but I am happy to hear otherwise.
I would really appreciate if someone could come up with a justified answer that could provide clarity.
Which term best defines a mostly "technologically-driven population shift from the country-side to factory towns".
We had to choose from the following terms: capitalism, feudalism, industrialisation and urbanisation.
At first glance one is compelled to pick 'Industrialisation' as the correct answer, as was marked correct for this exam. However, I question this ruling because of the use of the term "population shift".
Would anyone be able to please provide a clear definition of both Industrialisation and urbanisation and provide a convincing case on either option as the answer.
I personally believe that urbanisation (the population shift) being the result of the advances in technology (industrialisation) would mean that this definition is best suited to the term urbanisation, but I am happy to hear otherwise.
I would really appreciate if someone could come up with a justified answer that could provide clarity.