L labtyd Guest Mar 30, 2009 #1 If someone argues in a debate that something should be illegal for the reason that it is morally wrong but has no actual way of proving that as fact, isn't that a type of logical fallacy?
If someone argues in a debate that something should be illegal for the reason that it is morally wrong but has no actual way of proving that as fact, isn't that a type of logical fallacy?
J jess Guest Mar 30, 2009 #2 which is exactly why the legal system doesn't have any place in the personal moral decisions of the people.
which is exactly why the legal system doesn't have any place in the personal moral decisions of the people.
