Is it true that in law books, the term "man" is used as nuetral and is generalized as...

...the whole public? Someone told me,
"in law books the term "man" is used as neutral and is generalized as the whole public."

Is that true?


If that's true..................
how come we had to ratify the 19th amendment to give women the right to vote?

prior to the 19th amendment, the constitution already said "all men are created equal."
If the term "man" actually means "person," then wouldn't women already have the right to vote before the 19th amendment?
 
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