In the book I'm reading (The Curious Incident of the Dog In The Night-Time by Mark Haddon), someone kills a dog with a garden fork. Even though they're reported to the police for this crime, they aren't prosecuted for it -- it says in the book that the killer would only be prosecuted if the owner of the dog pressed charges.
Is this true? I thought that such severe cruelty to animals was a crime in the UK whether the owner pressed charges or not. The book was written in 2003, but set in 1998.
Thanks.
Is this true? I thought that such severe cruelty to animals was a crime in the UK whether the owner pressed charges or not. The book was written in 2003, but set in 1998.
Thanks.