Did it follow the regular form for 2nd declension masculine nouns? If so, "dee" sounds a bit awkward.
Or did it follow the form of the irregular "meus", and thus become "di"? Or was it something else?
(In medieval Ecclesiastical Latin, the vocative became simply "Deus", as in Psalm 22 which begins "Deus meus, Deus meus...", with no trace of the classical vocative in either the noun or the possesive adjective. But my question is about what the ancient Romans did.)
Or did it follow the form of the irregular "meus", and thus become "di"? Or was it something else?
(In medieval Ecclesiastical Latin, the vocative became simply "Deus", as in Psalm 22 which begins "Deus meus, Deus meus...", with no trace of the classical vocative in either the noun or the possesive adjective. But my question is about what the ancient Romans did.)