I'm writing an essay about the Keats poem "La Belle Dame Sans Merci" and the assignment is to argue a unique point of view about the poem. I'm trying to argue that the obsessed knight has actually taken advantage of the woman (sexually) and is telling the stranger at the beginning of the poem a story that paints her in a bad light. Is this a legitimate argument? Can anyone argue against this theory?
If anyone is familiar with the poem or is willing to read it to help me out, any assistance would be greatly appreciated
Poem found here: http://www.bartleby.com/126/55.html
If anyone is familiar with the poem or is willing to read it to help me out, any assistance would be greatly appreciated
Poem found here: http://www.bartleby.com/126/55.html