K
Kari K
Guest
My friend and I are having a debate.
I say that "paraneoplastic syndrome" has been used more often than lupus in the series as a possible explanation for a patient's condition. He thinks lupus has been offered more times.
Can anyone give a definitive answer as to who is right?
Preferably, with some proof I can cite.
I say that "paraneoplastic syndrome" has been used more often than lupus in the series as a possible explanation for a patient's condition. He thinks lupus has been offered more times.
Can anyone give a definitive answer as to who is right?
Preferably, with some proof I can cite.