If, for example, i were to buy 400'000 1 euro ordinary shares out of a mobile phone company (Company A) that has 500'000 authorised share capital. Then i buy 200'000 1 euro ordinary shares out of another mobile phone company(Company B). If i were to calculate that the price of the shares in company B were to double if company A were to fail. Then is it a crime to sell all my shares in company A, thus, bankrupting it? Then, when the shares rose, sold my shares in company B too?
Here's an interesting economics question.?
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