I'm confused about section 23 (second paragraph). He starts saying that a man cannot sell himself into slavery because he does not have complete authority over his own life. I believe the end of the paragraph talks about how he can still kill himself, thus revealing he still has some control.
But I'm having trouble with the middle bit. "Indeed, having by his fault forfeited his own life, by some act that deserves death; he, to whom he has forfeited it, may (when he has him in his power) delay to take it, and make use of him to his own service, and he does him no injury by it." If I understand correctly, he's saying that if someone DOES put himself into slavery, the master can use him because the slave deserves to die. Is that correct? To me, it seems a bit incongruous with the rest of the text.
But I'm having trouble with the middle bit. "Indeed, having by his fault forfeited his own life, by some act that deserves death; he, to whom he has forfeited it, may (when he has him in his power) delay to take it, and make use of him to his own service, and he does him no injury by it." If I understand correctly, he's saying that if someone DOES put himself into slavery, the master can use him because the slave deserves to die. Is that correct? To me, it seems a bit incongruous with the rest of the text.