K kazination New member Dec 13, 2010 #1 If a law is OBVIOUSLY being broken by a corporation and person and it meets all of the qualifications does the judge HAVE to grant a writ of mandamus?What about injunctive relief?
If a law is OBVIOUSLY being broken by a corporation and person and it meets all of the qualifications does the judge HAVE to grant a writ of mandamus?What about injunctive relief?