Hebrew language has a small vocabulary, only 3000 nouns.
English language (a Latin language, most European languages are Latin languages) has 4,000,000 nouns.
Could it be that the limited (imprecise) vocabulary of the Hebrew language causes a lack of precision when the historically insulated Hebrews of the diaspora tried to communicate in the language of the land, but due to their imprecise language they chose terms to communicate with gentiles and because of the lack of precision of the Hebrews choice of words it caused gentiles to misunderstand Jews as being condescending and insulting?
Could poor communication have been the problem? The reason I don't buy into the "Christ-killer" theory for antisemitism is it was as early as Muhammad that Christians were perceived as having a loyalty to Jews. This is documented in the Koran, and the phenomenon exists to this day.
This is a theory I'm throwing out there, no ill-will meant with this question. Thoughts?
English language (a Latin language, most European languages are Latin languages) has 4,000,000 nouns.
Could it be that the limited (imprecise) vocabulary of the Hebrew language causes a lack of precision when the historically insulated Hebrews of the diaspora tried to communicate in the language of the land, but due to their imprecise language they chose terms to communicate with gentiles and because of the lack of precision of the Hebrews choice of words it caused gentiles to misunderstand Jews as being condescending and insulting?
Could poor communication have been the problem? The reason I don't buy into the "Christ-killer" theory for antisemitism is it was as early as Muhammad that Christians were perceived as having a loyalty to Jews. This is documented in the Koran, and the phenomenon exists to this day.
This is a theory I'm throwing out there, no ill-will meant with this question. Thoughts?