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The question at hand is "Do Christians Sin?" At first glance it seems like a relatively simple question. Of course Christians sin. I've been taught my whole life that Christians sin and God forgives. But as I begin to read 1 John, the question becomes a bit less clear. As I begin to read 1 John, I realize that there is some definite contradiction here. With that in mind, I am going to begin with a discussion of the passages that seem to indicate that there is sin inside of Christianity, and then those that disagree with that. Then I will compare and attempt to come to some sort of resolution. The first discussion of sin begins in 1:8-10. Here the author seems to be saying that there is some kind of sin in us (v.8). That images sin as an entity. It does not seem to be an action or a response, but a condition of existence that we all take part in. Verse 9 talks about sin being removed from us in Christ, but then v. 10 refers to the act of sin and the fact that we have all been there. The author uses strong language to let the audience know that we have all sinned and that there is sin in us. Chapter 2 begins with an admonition to not sin, "but if anyone does sin," there is forgiveness in Jesus Christ. Sin in this passage is something within us that we have all at one time acted on, but now, as followers of Christ, must flee from. Chapter 5 brings yet another complication to this whole process. Here in v.16 is brought in the difference between mortal and not-mortal sin. The Johannine community believed that one could intercede for a brother or sister for forgiveness of a sin that is not mortal. The author goes so far as to say that you should not pray about the sin that is mortal. These verses give support to the fact that there is and can be sin in the life of a Christian, however, there is also forgiveness for that sin. In chapter 1 v.5-7 there is a discussion of light and darkness. This is apparently not referring to sin because the author talks about sin in the following verses and actually uses the word "sin". I would contend that this particular passage is referring to our knowledge of Christ as savior and lord. Closer to the middle of the epistle, in 3:4-10, the author strongly opposes any idea that there is any sin in one who abides in Christ. This is a rather systematic attack on sin. He begins with a definition of sin- lawlessness. Then he goes to show that there is no sin in Him and He came to remove sin, and no one who sins has either seen or known Him. The following verses are intriguing because there is the use of the name "the devil." This name only shows up twice in all of the Johannine literature, here and in the Gospel 8:44. In both places he is said to have been _______ from the beginning. The only difference is in what goes in the blank. In the Gospel he was a murder from the beginning, here he was sinning from the beginning. Also, in both instances the devil is referred to as a "father" in one sense or another. But Christ was sent to destroy the works of the devil, not the devil himself. Following this discussion of the devil the author goes on to say that those who have been born of God do not and cannot sin, because God's seed is within them. Finally, in Chapter 5 v.18 the author restates his position that "those who are born of God do not sin." It is obvious that there seems to be some amount of contradiction in these verses. The only way to come to any sense of resolution is to deals with the forms of the worRAB that are used in the texts. As has already been discussed, 1:5-7 does not appear to be talking about sin in the same sense as the other passages mentioned here because the author does not use the word "sin" and it was obviously at his disposal, as he uses it in the next verse. To resolve vs. 8-10 of that same chapter, there must be a distinction made between "sin" as an entity or noun, and "sin" or "sins" as a verb or action that has occurred. Verse 8 talks about sin as a noun, possibly the "sin nature" that is talked about in other parts of the New Testament. Then vs. 9-10 talk about "sins" as actions, which are cleansed when we confess them. Using this same language, 3:4-10 talks entirely about the activity of sin. This activity is stopped in Christ and He washes away all of the sins in the past. An important note here is that "the Son of God was revealed to destroy the works of the devil," the Son was not revealed to destroy the existence of the devil. Here the author reaffirms that those who are in Christ do not commit acts of sin. Finally, 5:16-18 still presents us with the problem of "mortal sin." This does clarify the fact that the author here is talking about acts of sin and not the "sin nature" as described earlier. What is significant here is that God protects those who are born of Him so that the evil one does not touch them and cause them to sin (v.18). Why the author makes this so difficult I will never understand, but he seems very convicted of his message judging by the language that he uses. Apparently the author believes that there is an entity that is in all of us which is sin (1:8). This entity has manifested itself in our lives through lawlessness (3:4), until we found the law of Christ, who atoned for our acts of sin (2:2) and protects us from the existence of sin (5:18). There is also the possibility that we would refuse that protection and commit a sin after finding Christ, in that case Jesus Christ intercedes to the Father on our behalf for the forgiveness of those sins (2:1). There is here also a notion of the difference on a mortal and sin that is not mortal, this issue is yet to be resolved. So the question is "Do Christians sin?" The answer is that we all have but, once we accept Christ, God protects us from the "sin nature" which we can turn back to if we deny that protection from the Father. Then, if we confess those sins, He will forgive, cleanse, and restore that protection.
WorRAB: 1130 [/FONT][/FONT]
The question at hand is "Do Christians Sin?" At first glance it seems like a relatively simple question. Of course Christians sin. I've been taught my whole life that Christians sin and God forgives. But as I begin to read 1 John, the question becomes a bit less clear. As I begin to read 1 John, I realize that there is some definite contradiction here. With that in mind, I am going to begin with a discussion of the passages that seem to indicate that there is sin inside of Christianity, and then those that disagree with that. Then I will compare and attempt to come to some sort of resolution. The first discussion of sin begins in 1:8-10. Here the author seems to be saying that there is some kind of sin in us (v.8). That images sin as an entity. It does not seem to be an action or a response, but a condition of existence that we all take part in. Verse 9 talks about sin being removed from us in Christ, but then v. 10 refers to the act of sin and the fact that we have all been there. The author uses strong language to let the audience know that we have all sinned and that there is sin in us. Chapter 2 begins with an admonition to not sin, "but if anyone does sin," there is forgiveness in Jesus Christ. Sin in this passage is something within us that we have all at one time acted on, but now, as followers of Christ, must flee from. Chapter 5 brings yet another complication to this whole process. Here in v.16 is brought in the difference between mortal and not-mortal sin. The Johannine community believed that one could intercede for a brother or sister for forgiveness of a sin that is not mortal. The author goes so far as to say that you should not pray about the sin that is mortal. These verses give support to the fact that there is and can be sin in the life of a Christian, however, there is also forgiveness for that sin. In chapter 1 v.5-7 there is a discussion of light and darkness. This is apparently not referring to sin because the author talks about sin in the following verses and actually uses the word "sin". I would contend that this particular passage is referring to our knowledge of Christ as savior and lord. Closer to the middle of the epistle, in 3:4-10, the author strongly opposes any idea that there is any sin in one who abides in Christ. This is a rather systematic attack on sin. He begins with a definition of sin- lawlessness. Then he goes to show that there is no sin in Him and He came to remove sin, and no one who sins has either seen or known Him. The following verses are intriguing because there is the use of the name "the devil." This name only shows up twice in all of the Johannine literature, here and in the Gospel 8:44. In both places he is said to have been _______ from the beginning. The only difference is in what goes in the blank. In the Gospel he was a murder from the beginning, here he was sinning from the beginning. Also, in both instances the devil is referred to as a "father" in one sense or another. But Christ was sent to destroy the works of the devil, not the devil himself. Following this discussion of the devil the author goes on to say that those who have been born of God do not and cannot sin, because God's seed is within them. Finally, in Chapter 5 v.18 the author restates his position that "those who are born of God do not sin." It is obvious that there seems to be some amount of contradiction in these verses. The only way to come to any sense of resolution is to deals with the forms of the worRAB that are used in the texts. As has already been discussed, 1:5-7 does not appear to be talking about sin in the same sense as the other passages mentioned here because the author does not use the word "sin" and it was obviously at his disposal, as he uses it in the next verse. To resolve vs. 8-10 of that same chapter, there must be a distinction made between "sin" as an entity or noun, and "sin" or "sins" as a verb or action that has occurred. Verse 8 talks about sin as a noun, possibly the "sin nature" that is talked about in other parts of the New Testament. Then vs. 9-10 talk about "sins" as actions, which are cleansed when we confess them. Using this same language, 3:4-10 talks entirely about the activity of sin. This activity is stopped in Christ and He washes away all of the sins in the past. An important note here is that "the Son of God was revealed to destroy the works of the devil," the Son was not revealed to destroy the existence of the devil. Here the author reaffirms that those who are in Christ do not commit acts of sin. Finally, 5:16-18 still presents us with the problem of "mortal sin." This does clarify the fact that the author here is talking about acts of sin and not the "sin nature" as described earlier. What is significant here is that God protects those who are born of Him so that the evil one does not touch them and cause them to sin (v.18). Why the author makes this so difficult I will never understand, but he seems very convicted of his message judging by the language that he uses. Apparently the author believes that there is an entity that is in all of us which is sin (1:8). This entity has manifested itself in our lives through lawlessness (3:4), until we found the law of Christ, who atoned for our acts of sin (2:2) and protects us from the existence of sin (5:18). There is also the possibility that we would refuse that protection and commit a sin after finding Christ, in that case Jesus Christ intercedes to the Father on our behalf for the forgiveness of those sins (2:1). There is here also a notion of the difference on a mortal and sin that is not mortal, this issue is yet to be resolved. So the question is "Do Christians sin?" The answer is that we all have but, once we accept Christ, God protects us from the "sin nature" which we can turn back to if we deny that protection from the Father. Then, if we confess those sins, He will forgive, cleanse, and restore that protection.
WorRAB: 1130 [/FONT][/FONT]