did jesus really do away with the old law?

  • Thread starter Thread starter just curious
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just curious

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i've heard that the reason we don't stone disobedient children to death anymore is because jesus established a new law. seems fair enough. but wouldn't that call into question this verse from the second book of timothy.

2 timothy 3:16
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

it clearly says "all scripture... is profitable for instruction in righteousness". does it not? then wouldn't this apply to the old testament as well?
 
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