A man owns a small home before he is married. Once married, he sells the home and buys another larger house with the intent of it being the family home. In the interim between owning homes, the husband opens a joint account with his wife and uses the funds from the sale of his home to support both her own and the household's expenses through that account.
In a California court, would this be considered co-mingling funds from his separate property, thus rendering it community property? Does this make the ENTIRETY of the amount community property, or just the amount that was co-mingled?
Does this make the house that was bought as a marital home community property as well? Or since it was bought with separate property funds, does it stay separate property (even if those funds were co-mingled)?
In a California court, would this be considered co-mingling funds from his separate property, thus rendering it community property? Does this make the ENTIRETY of the amount community property, or just the amount that was co-mingled?
Does this make the house that was bought as a marital home community property as well? Or since it was bought with separate property funds, does it stay separate property (even if those funds were co-mingled)?