Bilateral Pars Defect in L5 Without Any Fracture. Isn't This Contradicting Info??

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noel07

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Hi everyone, I have been having pain in my hips, groin, lower back and pelvic area for a about 5 months now. I was recently sent for a lurabar spinal x-ray and just got the results back. I'm a bit confused though. Here's what the lab paper says:

  • 5 lurabar vertebral bodies are well aligned without signs of fracture.
  • Bilateral pars defects seen in L5.
  • Remaining pars interarticulari and pedicles are intact.

When the nurse's assistant called me to explain the results, she said that the doctor had written down that I had spondylosis (osteoarthritis of the spine). But according to the lab paper it says I have "bilateral pars defects seen in L5" which doesn't "pars defect" mean fracture? But I don't have a fracture. Wouldn't a "bilateral pars defect in L5" be due to spondylolysis (not spondylosis)? Wouldn't the lab slip from the radiologist say that I had spondylosis if I did or is this something the GP determines once they see the actual x-ray? :dizzy:

What's your take: spondylolysis or spondylosis or neither? My next step is an Orthopedist but my insurance sucks. If anyone could shed some light on these results, I would greatly appreciate it. :)
 
I also thought a pars defect meant fracture. I had a fracture at L5 and had Spondylolisthesis, where my L5 vertebrae was slipping out of place. They called the fracture a pars defect. I had a fusion 7 months ago and the surgeon completely removed a chunk of bone where the fracture was. It was fractured all the way off and that chunk of bone was out of place and pinching my sciatic nerve.
I have no idea why it would say you have a pars defect if there is no fracture. Maybe there are different types of pars defects?
 
Thanks for your input! I was thinking the same thing that there are possibly other forms of defects but I can't seem to find any online. I'm trying to find if it is Spondylosis causes defects since this is what the nurse said I had. I keep getting referred to Spondylolysis though which means fracture as far as I know... :confused:
 
SounRAB like an error somewhere since a Pars Defect is a fracture of the pars most often seen at L5 causing Spondylolysis which can lead to a slippage of the vertebrae known as Spondylolisthesis. However I suppose the fracture may have healed resulting in a defect but no visible fracture.
Spondylosis is an arthritic condition affecting the posterior structures of the spine most often affecting the elderly.

Call the MD for clarification.
 
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