Assume it says in a book that a contract was signed in 1987. Assume that

[Easter Bunny 72]

pre-contract work? went ahead BECAUSE it was known that existing legacy artefacts were adequate for the purpose of "integrating" any new system-to-be. Assume that later there were problems in integrating the new system. Is it safe to assume that there was substitution of artefacts - that an artefact or artefacts "fit for purpose" was substituted by an artefact "not fit for purpose" ?