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  1. G

    Is this a legitimate proof of this limit (non-rigorous)?

    lim (1-cosx)/x as x goes to 0 substitute x = y/2 and use the power reducing formula to get lim (siny)^2 as y goes to 0 then this is a continuous function that has a limit of 1 I have seen another proof of this, but this seems pretty easy if it works
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